Flight operations quiz: Spring 2023

Scenario for questions 1 and 2: Aerodrome QNH is 1013. Airfield elevation is 849 ft in undulating terrain. Before commencing your approach, the QNH is given to you by ATC, in error, as 1003, which you set.

1. 1. When flying a visual approach, which statement is most correct?
      1. the QNH error will become apparent on approach if visual approach slope indicators are available
      2. the QNH error will become apparent by cross referencing your radio altimeter
      3. ATC will alert you to the altimetry error by reference to your Mode C transponder output
      4. the QNH error may only become apparent on ground by cross referencing the airfield elevation
   2. When flying a 2D approach in IMC prior to becoming visual, which statement is most correct?
      1. the QNH error will become apparent at the initial approach fix
      2. the QNH error may become apparent during approach by cross reference to a DME altitude table
      3. ATC will alert you to the altimetry error by reference to your Mode C transponder output
      4. the QNH error will become apparent when becoming visual
   3. If a GPWS or TAWS is inoperative, the flight may begin, providing:
      1. an authorised weather forecast indicates conditions will be VMC below the minimum IFR altitude
      2. day only – and an authorised weather forecast indicates conditions will be VMC below the minimum IFR altitude
      3. there are no facilities at the aerodrome to repair or replace the system
      4. day only – the flight begins less than 24 hrs since the system was discovered to be inoperative and there are no facilities at the aerodrome to repair or replace the system
   4. An authorised weather forecast at your planned alternate must be valid for:
      1. 60 minutes before your planned ETA and 30 minutes after planned ETA
      2. 30 minutes before your planned ETA and 60 minutes after planned ETA
      3. ETA buffers do not need to be applied to a planned alternate
      4. 30 minutes before your planned ETA and 30 minutes after planned ETA
   5. You are planning a flight by night VFR. Under which of following forecast visibility and ceiling values would you need to plan an alternate?
      1. visibility 1,500 m, cloud ceiling 5,000 ft
      2. visibility 5,000 m, cloud ceiling 1,500 ft
      3. visibility 8,000 m, cloud ceiling 1,500 ft
      4. visibility 1,500 m, cloud ceiling 8,000 ft
   6. If you are unable to obtain a weather forecast for your flight before departure, you may assess the weather conditions and depart:
      1. if you are reasonably satisfied the departure aerodrome weather will allow you to return and land safely within 60 minutes
      2. once you are reasonably satisfied it is safe to do so
      3. if you are satisfied the departure aerodrome weather will not change in 30 minutes
      4. if you are reasonably satisfied the departure aerodrome weather will allow you to return and land safely within 30 minutes
   7. It is a requirement to submit a flight plan for a planned VFR flight:
      1. only if it will be in Class C or D airspace
      2. in any class of airspace in a designated remote area
      3. above 5,000 ft AMSL in any class of airspace in any remote area
      4. at night if you are proceeding more than 50 nm from the departure aerodrome
   8. You are planning to fly VFR above F200 but when checking your single altimeter’s accuracy, you find it is in error by 111 ft Can you proceed?
      1. yes, provided you advise ATC accordingly
      2. yes, since it more likely the QNH is in error than the altimeter
      3. yes, since there are no facilities at the departure aerodrome to repair or recalibrate the altimeter
      4. no
   9. If you are planning to fly over a populous area, which statement is true?
      1. rotorcraft must clear obstacles or features within 600 m of a point directly below the aircraft, by 1,500 ft
      2. aeroplanes must clear obstacles or features within 300 m of a point directly below the aircraft, by 1,000 ft
      3. rotorcraft must clear obstacles or features within 300 m of a point directly below the aircraft, by 1,000 ft
      4. aeroplanes and rotorcraft must clear obstacles or features within 600 m of a point directly below the aircraft by 500 ft
   10. What type of air traffic service is provided by Airservices Australia at Ballina?
       1. flight information service
       2. common traffic advisory service
       3. surveillance information service
       4. surveillance flight information service
   11. When operating VFR, is it a requirement to fix your position by visual reference to features marked on topographical charts every 30 minutes?
       1. yes
       2. no
       3. no, if radar identified
       4. yes, if not radar identified
   12. The average-sized Australian pelican (Pelecanus conspicillatus) weighs about the same as:
       1. a small RPA
       2. a very small RPA
       3. a micro RPA
       4. an excluded RPA
   13. Is a kite-surfer considered to be an aircraft?
       1. It has equivalent properties to a paraglider and, therefore, is defined as an aircraft
       2. unknown
       3. no
       4. yes
   14. Off-the-shelf very small RPA can reportedly attain altitudes above:
       1. 15,000 ft AMSL
       2. 5,000 ft AMSL
       3. 1,500 ft AMSL
       4. 400 ft AMSL
   15. At what altitude is there reliable surveillance coverage on the Melbourne-Mildura corridor, in the vicinity of Mildura?
       1. above 6,500 ft AMSL
       2. above 5,000 ft AMSL
       3. above 1,500 ft AMSL
       4. above 400 ft AMSL
   16. What is an aeronautical data originator?
       1. Aeronautical data originators are organisations or individuals responsible for the accuracy of data and information published in the Integrated Aeronautical Information Package (IAIP), including NOTAMs and aeronautical charts
       2. A person responsible for managing an operator’s flight data systems who is approved by CASA
       3. A person responsible for managing an operator’s flight data systems who is approved by Airservices Australia
       4. A person responsible for managing an operator’s safety management system who is approved by CASA

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