Instrument flight rules quiz: Spring 2025

A Category B aeroplane is required to circle for runway 18 in Cooma via the following approach:

1. What is the maximum CAT B speed for circling?
   1. 140 knots IAS
   2. 135 knots IAS
   3. 130 knots ground speed
   4. 140 knots TAS
2. What is the minimum obstacle clearance required above the highest obstacle within the circling area (Cat B)?
   1. clear of obstacle
   2. 200 ft
   3. 300 ft
   4. 400 ft
3. What is the CAT B circling radii (reference only) for this procedure?
   1. 2.66 nm
   2. 2.71 nm
   3. 2.77 nm
   4. 2.63 nm
4. What is the recommended timing FROM passing abeam the threshold of runway 18, TO commencing the base turn onto runway 18 (before correcting for tailwind)?
   1. 30 secs
   2. 20 secs
   3. 40 secs
   4. 25 secs
5. Spot heights on instrument approach and landing (IAL) charts encompass all potential obstacles including the highest points in the relevant circling area. True or False?
   1. true
   2. false
6. If the DME is NOTAMed as being out of service, can GNSS be used in lieu of the DME?
   1. yes
   2. no
7. Descent below the minima of 4,060 feet (with the required visual references) should not be made until:
   1. the minimum visibility can be maintained
   2. the aeroplane can maintain a minimum height of 300 ft AGL
   3. the aircraft is in a position to carry out a landing using normal rates of descent and angles of bank
   4. the aeroplane can maintain a minimum height of 500 ft above aerodrome level (AAL)
8. What minimum clearance do the 25 nm MSA and the 10 nm MSA provide above all objects?
   1. 2,000 ft within 25 nm, 1,000 ft within 10 nm
   2. 2,000 ft
   3. 1,000 ft within 25 nm of the NDB, and 1,000 ft within 10 nm of the aerodrome reference point
   4. 1,000 ft
9. Threats presented by this circling approach may include (but are not limited to) which of the following:
   1. higher elevation resulting in increased TAS and groundspeed
   2. higher radius of turn for a given angle of bank due to field elevation
   3. increased rate of descent to fly a three-degree landing profile due to field elevation
   4. all of the above
10. What methods may be used to mitigate the threats?
    1. flying an IAS less than the maximum allowed if possible and taking landing configuration early
    2. increasing the available circling area by operating as a higher category aeroplane
    3. circling to the west of the runway if this means you have a headwind on base
    4. all of the above
11. On the graphical area forecast (GAF) excerpt shown, what does the term ISOL mean?
    1. +TSRA forecast to occur as a single cell only
    2. +TSRA forecast to affect up to 50% of an area
    3. +TSRA to affect 100% of the area with less than 30 minutes duration
    4. 500 m visibility in isolated areas
12. What does the term EMBD in the GAF mean?
    1. embedded within cloud layers and cannot be readily recognised
    2. little or no separation between adjacent features affecting greater than 75% of an area
    3. cumulus cloud combined with other forms of cloud
    4. only applies to isolated cumulus formations in overwater areas
13. An AIRMET contains observed or forecast information (for deteriorating conditions only) when not forecast in the relevant GAF. Which of the following deteriorating conditions would be provided in an AIRMET?
    1. changes in the freezing level specified in a GAF of more than 1,000 feet
    2. any surface visibility below 10 km not specified in a GAF
    3. light icing
    4. towering cumulus

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